Authentic & Latest CLAD Exam Test Engine - Dumps4download.us

Sample Questions:

Question No: 1

Which of the following is NOT a component of an Error Cluster?

A. Status.

B. Code.

C. Source.

D. VI name

Answer: D

Question No: 2

Which of the following methods is NOT a method to create a 1-D Array?

A. Place an Array Shell on the Front Panel and drag a Control into the shell.

B. Use a While Loop with auto-indexing disabled.

C. Use a For Loop with auto-indexing enabled.

D. Use the Initialize Array function.

Answer: B

Question No: 3

Which VI memory components are ALWAYS S resident for a SubVI? (Choose all apply)

A. Data Space

B. Front Panel

C. Block Diagram

D. Code

Answer: A, D

Question No: 4

You have a control on the front panel of a VI and you need to modify one of its properties at run time. Which of the following is the best approach you would take?

A. Create an implicit property node and select the propertyto modify

B. Create a control reference,pass the reference to a property nodeand select theproperty to modify

C. Create a linked shared variable andselect the property to modify theproperty

D. Create alocal variableand select the property to modify

Answer: A

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NABP NAPLEX Online Test Engine With 100% Success Guarantee | Dumps4download.us

Sample Questions:

Question: 1

Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat infections associated with stenotrophomonas maltophilia?

A. Meropenem

B. Vancomycin

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

E. Ampicillin

Answer: D 

Question: 2

Which of the following is recommended to be monitored in patients on Divalproex Sodium?

A. CBC

B. Serum ammonia

C. LFT’s

D. Pulmonary function

E. Serum creatinine

Answer: C 

Question: 3

In the management of acute ischemic stroke, within how many minutes from symptom onset should alteplase be administered?

A. 3 hours

B. 6 hours

C. 12 hours

D. 24 hours

Answer: A

Question: 4

A patient with multibacillary leprosy is on dapsone, clofazimine, and rifampin. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of the medications listed?

A. Dapsone is bacteriostatic because of its inhibitory effects on dihydrofolate reductase

B. Dapsone is bacteriostatic because of its inhibitory effects on myeloperoxidase

C. Clofazimine is bactericidal by directly inhibiting bacterial DNA polymerase

D. Rifampin is bacteriostatic by inhibiting RNA synthesis by blocking DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E. Rifampin is bactericidal by inhibiting RNA synthesis by blocking DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Answer: E 

Question: 5

Which of the following represents the major route of metabolism for acetaminophen?

A. Glucuronidation

B. Sulfation

C. Cytochrome P-450 oxidation

D. Direct renal excretion

E. Plasma breakdown

Answer: A

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Download Superbly Useful FPGEE Dumps To Ace Your Exam In First Attempt– Dumps4download.us

 

Demo Questions:

Question: 1

Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be:

A. sterile water

B. distilled water

C. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

D. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

E. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

Answer: E 

Question: 2

Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects?

A. Calcium carbonate

B. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate

C. Magnesium hydroxide

D. Calcium sulfate

E. Aluminum silicate

Answer: C 

Question: 3

Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures specifically because of their:

A. Sizes and shapes

B. Tautomeric activities

C. Enzymatic activities

D. Electron-donating effects

E. Electron-withdrawing effects

Answer: E 

Question: 4

Uricosuric agents are used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid re-absorption in the proximal tubules, the best example of a uricosuric agent is: 

A. Allopurinol

B. sulphinpyrazone

C. Indomethacin

D. Penicillamine

E. Methotrexate

Answer: B 

Question: 5

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

A. 15.

B. 20.

C. 150.

D. 200

E. 2000.

Answer: E 

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Get Free RSA 050-11-CARSANWLN01 Demo Questions | Dumps4download.us

 

Sample Questions:

Question: 1

In RSA Live, what is the deploy package option most commonly used for?

A. Deploying content to the context hub

B. Deploying a resource bundle

C. Subscribing to a resource

D. Deploying content to air gapped networks

Answer: C 

Question: 2

To customize your query display in Events View, create

A. Custom Meta Groups

B. Custom Column Groups

C. Profiles

D. Dashlets

Answer: A 

Question: 3

Which of the following statements about the REST interface are true? (Choose two)

A. The REST interface is available only for Concentrators and Decoders

B. The REST interface is available separately for each core Service on the Host

C. The REST interface for the Broker service defaults to 50103

D. The REST interface for the Concentrator service defaults to 51005

E. The REST interface for the Decoder service defaults to 50014

Answer: C,D 

Question: 4

To create a custom feed, initiate the action by selecting which top-level module'?

A. Investigate

B. Admin

C. Monitor

D. Configure

Answer: D 

Question: 5

To create meta keys that will appear in the Investigation view, you would most commonly edit configuration files on the

A. Packet Decoder

B. Concentrator

C. Broker

D. Log Decoder

Answer: D 

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SAS Institute A00-215 Dumps PDF - Download Actual A00-215 Exam – Dumps4download.us

Sample Questions

Question: 1

Which statement is true regarding the XLSX engine in the LIBNAME statement?

A. The individual worksheets are automatically concatenated when reading a Microsoft Excel workbook.

B. The XLSX engine can road and write data in Microsoft Excel workbooks.

C. The XLSX engine can road Microsoft workbooks with both XLSX and XLS extensions

D. The XLSX extension in the Microsoft Excel workbook name is optional in the LIBNAME statement

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which ODS EXCEL statement correctly creates an Excel using the ANALYSIS style?

A. Ods excel=’ c : \report. xlsx’ style=analysis;

B. Ods excel workbook=’ report. xles’ analysis;

C. Ods excel=’ c : \report. xlsx’ / analysis;

D. Ods excel file =’c \report.xlsx’ styleanalysis;

Answer: C 

Question: 3

Which PROC IMPORT step correctly creates the MYDATA,SALES data set from the SALES.SCV file?

A. proc import data="mydata. sales" dbms=csv out="mydata.sales; nun

B. proc import datafile="sales.csv" dbms=csv out-mydata. sales;

C. proc import data=mydata.sales dbms=csv out=mydata.gales; run,-

D. proc import datafile=sales.csv dbms=csv out—"mydata,sales"; run;

Answer: D 

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Latest 300-720 Practice Test Questions With 100% Success Guarantee

Demo Questions:

Question: 1

Which SMTP extension does Cisco ESA support for email security?

A. ETRN

B. UTF8SMTP

C. PIPELINING

D. STARTTLS

Answer: D 

Question: 2

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering

B. Connection Reputation Filtering

C. Talos Reputation Filtering

D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Answer: A 

Question: 3

When the Spam Quarantine is configured on the Cisco ESA, what validates end-users via LDAP during login to the End-User Quarantine?

A. Enabling the End-User Safelist/Blocklist feature

B. Spam Quarantine External Authentication Query

C. Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication Query

D. Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query

Answer: C 

Question: 4

When email authentication is configured on Cisco ESA, which two key types should be selected on the signing profile? (Choose two.)

A. DKIM

B. Public Keys

C. Domain Keys

D. Symmetric Keys

E. Private Keys

Answer: A,C

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Authentic & Latest 300-420 Exam Test Engine - Dumps4download.us

Sample Question:

Question: 1

Which solution allows overlay VNs to communicate with each other in an SD-WAN Architecture?

A. External fusion routers can be used to map VNs to VRFs and selectively route traffic between VRFs.
B. GRE tunneling can be configured between fabric edges to connect one VN to another.
C. SGTs can be used to permit traffic from one VN to another.
D. Route leaking can be used on the fabric border nodes to inject routes from one VN to another.

Answer: B 


Question: 2

An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to a main office.
What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choosetwo.)

A. support for AES 256-bit encryption
B. greater scalability
C. support for anycast gateway
D. lower traffic overhead
E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels

Answer: B,E 


Question: 3

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?

A. <create-subscription>
B. <commit>
C. <notification>
D. <logging>

Answer: A 


Question: 4

What is a benefit of using VRRPv3 as compared to VRRPv2?

A. VRRPv3 supports IPv4 and IPv6
B. VRRPv3 supports authentication
C. VRRPv3 supports preemption
D. VRRPv3 supports stateful switchover

Answer: A 

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Free Oracle 1Z0-1067 Sample Questions | Dumps4download.us

Demo Questions:

Question: 1

You are asked to deploy a new application that has been designed to scale horizontally. The business stakeholders have asked that the application be deployed In us-phoenlx-1.

Normal usage requires 2 OCPUs. You expect to have few spikes during the week, that will require up to 4 OCPUs, and a major usage uptick at the end of each month that will require 8 OCPUs.

What is the most cost-effective approach to implement a highly available and scalable solution?

A. Create an instance pool with a VM.Standard2.2 shape instance configuration. Setup the autoscaling configuration to use 2 availability domains and have a minimum of 2 instances, to handle the weekly spikes, and a maximum of 4 Instances.

B. Create an instance with 1 OCPU shape. Use a CLI script to clone It when more resources are needed.

C. Create an instance pool with a VM.Standard2.1 shape instance configuration. Setup the autoscaling configuration to use 2 availability domains and have a minimum of 2 instances and a maximum of 8 instances.

D. Create an instance with 1 OCPU shape. Use the Resize Instance action to scale up to a larger shape when more resources are needed. 

Answer: A 

Question: 2

As the operations administrator for your company's Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI), you have been entrusted the task of ensuring that data being accessed by the application is encrypted.

Your application portfolio Includes both Virtual Machine (VM) and Bare Metal (BM) database systems.

Which method should you use to achieve encryption of data in-transit?

A. Configure backup encryption for RMAN backup sets before transferring data

B. Native Oracle Net Services encryption and integrity capabilities

C. Key Store/Wallet service for on the fly encryption of data in transit

D. Data is encrypted at rest using TDE and no additional encryption is needed

Answer: B 

Question: 3

A subscriber of on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Notifications service topic complained about not receiving messages from the service. Which of the following options can help you debug this issue?

A. If OCI Notifications service does not receive an acknowledgement from a subscription endpoint, the service tries to redeliver messages for up to two hours. Configure an alarm on the NumberofNotificationFailed metric through the OCI Monitoring service to help debug the issue.

B. If OCI Notifications service does not receive an acknowledgement from a subscription endpoint, the service drops the message. Confirm that the subscriber is always online to receive messages to help debug the issue.

C. If OCI Notifications service does not receive an acknowledgement from a subscription endpoint, the service tries to redeliver messages for up to one day. Make sure that the subscriber is online at least once a day to help debug the Issue.

D. If OCI Notifications service does not receive an acknowledgement from a subscription endpoint, check the NumberofNotificationFailed metric through the OCI Monitoring service for failed messages. Copy these messages to an OCI Object Storage bucket. Make sure the subscriber has the required credentials to access this bucket to help debug the Issue

Answer: A 

Question: 4

The boot volume on your Oracle Linux instance has run out of space. Your application has crashed due to a lack of swap space, forcing you to Increase the size of the boot volume.

Which step should NOT be Included In the process used to solve the Issue?

A. Resize the boot volume by specifying a larger value than the boot volume's current size.

B. Create a RAID 0 configuration to extend the boot volume file system onto another block volume.

C. Attach the resized boot volume to a second instance as a data volume; Extend the partition and grow the file system on the resized boot volume.

D. Reattach the boot volume and restart the instance.

E. Stop the instance and detach the boot volume.

Answer: B 

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Microsoft MS-101 Dumps Question Answers - MS-101 Dumps PDF | Dumps4download.us

Sample Questions:

Question: 1

On which server should you install the Azure ATP sensor?

A. Server 1

B. Server 2

C. Server 3

D. Server 4

E. Server 5

Answer: A 

Question: 2

You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices.

What should you create from the Intune admin center?

A. a device compliance policy

B. a device configuration profile

C. an application policy

D. an app configuration policy

Answer: D

Question: 3

You need to ensure that User1 can enroll the devices to meet the technical requirements. What should you do?

A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, assign User1 the Cloud device administrator rote.

B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Maximum number of devices per user setting.

C. From the Intune admin center, add User1 as a device enrollment manager.

D. From the Intune admin center, configure the Enrollment restrictions.

Answer: C 

Question: 4

You need to create the Microsoft Store for Business.

Which user can create the store?

A. User2

B. User3

C. User4

D. User5

Answer: C 

Question: 5

Which report should the New York office auditors view?

A. DLP policy matches

B. DLP false positives and overrides

C. DLP incidents

D. Top Senders and Recipients

Answer: C 

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Pass Microsoft AZ-204 Exam with New AZ-204 Dumps | Dumps4Download.us

Question: 1

You need to support the requirements for the Shipping Logic App.
What should you use?

A. Azure Active Directory Application Proxy
B. Point-to-Site (P2S) VPN connection
C. Site-to-Site (S2S) VPN connection
D. On-premises Data Gateway

Answer: D

Explanation:

Before you can connect to on-premises data sources from Azure Logic Apps, download and install the onpremises data gateway on a local computer. The gateway works as a bridge that provides quick data transfer and encryption between data sources on premises (not in the cloud) and your logic apps.
The gateway supports BizTalk Server 2016.
Note: Microsoft have now fully incorporated the Azure BizTalk Services capabilities into Logic Apps and Azure App Service Hybrid Connections.
Logic Apps Enterprise Integration pack bring some of the enterprise B2B capabilities like AS2 and X12, EDI standards support
Scenario: The Shipping Logic app must meet the following requirements:
•Support the ocean transport and inland transport workflows by using a Logic App.
•Support industry-standard protocol X12 message format for various messages including vessel content details and arrival notices.
•Secure resources to the corporate VNet and use dedicated storage resources with a fixed costing model.
•Maintain on-premises connectivity to support legacy applications and final BizTalk migrations.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-gateway-install

Question: 2

You need to migrate on-premises shipping data to Azure.
What should you use?

A. Azure Migrate
B. Azure Cosmos DB Data Migration tool (dt.exe)
C. AzCopy
D. Azure Database Migration service

Answer: D

Explanation:

Migrate from on-premises or cloud implementations of MongoDB to Azure Cosmos DB with minimal downtime by using Azure Database Migration Service. Perform resilient migrations of MongoDB data at scale and with high reliability.
Scenario: Data migration from on-premises to Azure must minimize costs and downtime.
The application uses MongoDB JSON document storage database for all container and transport information.

References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/mongodb-to-azure-cosmos-db-online-andofflinemigrationsare-now-available/

Question: 3

You need to configure the ContentUploadService deployment.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Add the following markup to line CS23:
types: Private
B. Add the following markup to line CS24:
osType: Windows
C. Add the following markup to line CS24:
osType: Linux
D. Add the following markup to line CS23:
types: Public

Answer: A

Explanation:
Scenario: All Internal services must only be accessible from Internal Virtual Networks (VNets)
There are three Network Location types – Private, Public and Domain

Reference:
https://devblogs.microsoft.com/powershell/setting-network-location-to-private/

Question: 4

You need to store the user agreements.
Where should you store the agreement after it is completed?

A. Azure Storage queu
B. Azure Event Hub
C. Azure Service Bus topic
D. Azure Event Grid topic

Answer: B

Explanation:
Azure Event Hub is used for telemetry and distributed data streaming.
This service provides a single solution that enables rapid data retrieval for real-time processing as well as repeated replay of stored raw data. It can capture the streaming data into a file for processing and analysis.
It has the following characteristics:
•low latency
•capable of receiving and processing millions of events per second
•at least once delivery

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/compare-messaging-services

Question: 5

You need to secure the Shipping Logic App.
What should you use?

A. Azure App Service Environment (ASE)
B. Azure AD B2B integration
C. Integration Service Environment (ISE)
D. VNet service endpoint

Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The Shipping Logic App requires secure resources to the corporate VNet and use dedicated storage resources with a fixed costing model.
You can access to Azure Virtual Network resources from Azure Logic Apps by using integration service environments (ISEs).
Sometimes, your logic apps and integration accounts need access to secured resources, such as virtual machines (VMs) and other systems or services, that are inside an Azure virtual network. To set up this access, you can create an integration service environment (ISE) where you can run your logic apps and create your integration accounts.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/connect-virtual-network-vnet-isolatedenvironmentoverview

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Pass CompTIA SY0-501 Exam With Dumps4Download.us

Question: 1

Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Answer: D 

Question: 2

A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address.
The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?

A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup

Answer: B 

Question: 3

Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?

A. Shibboleth
B. RADIUS federation
C. SAML
D. OAuth
E. OpenID connect

Answer: B

Explanation:
http://archive.oreilly.com/pub/a/wireless/2005/01/01/authentication.html

Question: 4

Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity?

A. Sustainability
B. Homogeneity
C. Resiliency
D. Configurability

Answer: C 

Question: 5

In a corporation where compute utilization spikes several times a year, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has requested a cost-effective architecture to handle the variable capacity demand. Which of the following characteristics BEST describes what the CIO has requested?

A. Elasticity
B. Scalability
C. High availability
D. Redundancy

Answer: A

Explanation:
Elasticity is defined as “the degree to which a system is able to adapt to workload changes by
provisioning and de-provisioning resources in an autonomic manner, such that at each point in time the
available resources match the current demand as closely as possible”.

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Latest Amazon SAP-C01 Dumps PDF Perfect Dedication | Dumps4Download.us

 Question: 1

A bank is re-architecting its mainframe-based credit card approval processing application to a cloudnative application on the AWS cloud. The new application will receive up to 1,000 requests per second at peak load. There are multiple steps to each transaction, and each step must receive the result of the previous step. The entire request must return an authorization response within less than 2 seconds with zero data loss. Every request must receive a response. The solution must be Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)-compliant.
Which option will meet all of the bank’s objectives with the LEAST complexity and LOWEST cost while also meeting compliance requirements?

A. Create an Amazon API Gateway to process inbound requests using a single AWS Lambda task that performs multiple steps and returns a JSON object with the approval status. Open a support case to increase the limit for the number of concurrent Lambdas to allow room for bursts of activity due to the new application.
B. Create an Application Load Balancer with an Amazon ECS cluster on Amazon EC2 Dedicated instances in a target group to process incoming requests. Use Auto Scaling to scale the cluster out/in based on average CPU utilization. Deploy a web service that processes all of the approval steps and returns a JSON object with the approval status.
C. Deploy the application on Amazon EC2 on Dedicated Instances. Use an Elastic Load Balancer in front of a farm of application servers in an Auto Scaling group to handle incoming requests. Scale out/in based on a custom Amazon CloudWatch metric for the number of inbound requests per second after measuring the capacity of a single instance.
D. Create an Amazon API Gateway to process inbound requests using a series of AWS Lambda processes, each with an Amazon SQS input queue. As each step completes, it writes its result to the next step’s queue. The final step returns a JSON object with the approval status. Open a support case to increase the limit for the number of concurrent Lambdas to allow room for bursts of activity due to the new application.

Answer: B 

Question: 2

A company has a standard three-tier architecture using two Availability Zones. During the company’s off season, users report that the website is not working. The Solutions Architect finds that no changes have been made to the environment recently, the website is reachable, and it is possible to log in. However, when the Solutions Architect selects the “find a store near you” function, the maps provided on the site by a third-party RESTful API call do not work about 50% of the time after refreshing the page. The outbound API calls are made through Amazon EC2 NAT instances.
What is the MOST likely reason for this failure and how can it be mitigated in the future?

A. The network ACL for one subnet is blocking outbound web traffic. Open the network ACL and prevent administration from making future changes through IAM.
B. The fault is in the third-party environment. Contact the third party that provides the maps and request a fix that will provide better uptime.
C. One NAT instance has become overloaded. Replace both EC2 NAT instances with a larger-sized instance and make sure to account for growth when making the new instance size.
D. One of the NAT instances failed. Recommend replacing the EC2 NAT instances with a NAT gateway.

Answer: D 

Explanation:

The issue is 50% failure, means the balancing over 2 AZs is failing on one NAT instance in one AZ. The solution is to replace the NAT instance with fully managed and high available NAT gateway.

Question: 3

A company is planning to migrate an application from on-premises to AWS. The application currently uses an Oracle database and the company can tolerate a brief downtime of 1 hour when performing the switch to the new infrastructure. As part of the migration, the database engine will be changed to MySQL. A Solutions Architect needs to determine which AWS services can be used to perform the migration while minimizing the amount of work and time required.
Which of the following will meet the requirements?

A. Use AWS SCT to generate the schema scripts and apply them on the target prior to migration. Use AWS DMS to analyse the current schema and provide a recommendation for the optimal database engine. Then, use AWS DMS to migrate to the recommended engineer. Use AWS SCT to identify what embedded SQL code in the application can be converted and what has to be done manually.
B. Use AWS SCT to generate the schema scripts and apply them on the target prior to migration. Use AWS DMS to begin moving data from the on-premises database to AWS. After the initial copy, continue to use AWS DMS to keep the databases in sync until cutting over to the new database. Use AWS SCT to identify what embedded SQL code in the application can be converted and what has to be done manually.
C. Use AWS DMS to help identify the best target deployment between installing the database engine on Amazon EC2 directly or moving to Amazon RDS. Then, use AWS DMS to migrate to the platform. Use AWS Application Discovery Service to identify what embedded SQL code in the application can be converted and what has to be done manually.
D. Use AWS DMS to begin moving data from the on-premises database to AWS. After the initial copy, continue to use AWS DMS to keep the databases in sync until cutting over to the new database. Use AWS Application Discovery Service to identify what embedded SQL code in the application can be converted and what has to be done manually.

Answer: B 

Question: 4

A company has an Amazon VPC that is divided into a public subnet and a private subnet A web application runs in Amazon VPC, and each subnet has its own NACL The public subnet has a CIDR of 10.0.0.0/24. An Application Load Balancer is deployed to the public subnet. The private subnet has a CIDR of 10.0.1.0/24. Amazon EC2 instances that run a web server on port 80 are launched into the private subnet.
Only network traffic that is required for the Application Load Balancer to access the web application can be allowed to travel between the public and private subnets
What collection of rules should be written to ensure that the private subnet's NACL meets the requirement? (Select TWO.)

A. An inbound rule for port 80 from source 0.0.0 0/0
B. An inbound rule for port 80 from source 10.0.0.0/24
C. An outbound rule for port 80 to destination 0.0.0.0/0
D. An outbound rule for port 80 to destination 10.0.0.0/24
E. An outbound rule for ports 1024 through 65535 to destination 10.0.0.0/24

Answer: B, E 

Question: 5

A Solutions Architect must establish a patching plan for a large mixed fleet of Windows and Linux servers. The patching plan must be implemented securely, be audit ready, and comply with the company’s business requirements.
Which option will meet these requirements with MINIMAL effort?

A. Install and use an OS-native patching service to manage the update frequency and release approval for all instances. Use AWS Config to verify the OS state on each instance and report on any patch compliance issues.
B. Use AWS Systems Manager on all instances to manage patching. Test patches outside of production and then deploy during a maintenance window with the appropriate approval.
C. Use AWS OpsWorks for Chef Automate to run a set of scripts that will iterate through all instances of a given type. Issue the appropriate OS command to get and install updates on each instance, including any required restarts during the maintenance window.
D. Migrate all applications to AWS OpsWorks and use OpsWorks automatic patching support to keep the OS up-to-date following the initial installation. Use AWS Config to provide audit and compliance reporting.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Only Systems Manager can patch both OS effectively on AWS and on premise.

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Latest MS-300 Dumps PDF Latest MS-300 Exam Questions | Dumps4Download.us

Question: 1

You need to recommend an identity model that meets the technical requirements. Which Identity model should you recommend?

A. Synchronized Identity

B. Cloud Identity

C. Federated Identity

Answer: A

Question: 2

You need to block the media files to meet the technical requirements. What should you do?

A. From the SharePoint admin center, modify the properties of the OneDrive for Business site collection.

B. From the SharePoint admin center, modify the Access control settings.

C. From the OneDrive admin center, modify the Sync settings.

D. From the OneDrive admin center, modify the Compliance settings.

Answer: C

Question: 3

You need to meet the technical requirements for the finance department site collection. What should you do?

A. From the Security 8t Compliance admin center, create a classification label policy.

B. From the SharePoint admin center, select the finance department site collection, and then configure the Sharing settings.

C. From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a permission policy.

D. From the SharePoint admin center, select Sharing, and then select Limit external sharing using domains

Answer: B

Question: 4

You need to confirm whether the performance issues experienced by the HR department site collection are due to the large images. What should you do?

A. From Site Settings for the site collection, select Storage Metrics

B. From Site Settings for the site collection, select Site collection health checks

C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the service status of SharePoint Online

D. From Microsoft Edge, open the site. Run the developer tools

Answer: D 

Question: 5

You need to configure the Yammer feed to meet the technical requirements. What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.

A. Add a Contact Editor web part

B. Embed a Yammer feed

C. Add a Yammer web part

D. Add a Yammer link

Answer: C

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